The “Forsaking” of Lazarus

John 11 gives us a preview of the cross/resurrection of Jesus through the lens of the Lazarus event.  There, as we all know, Jesus actually lets Lazarus, his “friend” (v. 11), die, and presumably “descend into hell [Hades, the Unseen, not Gehenna!].”  But was this out of wrath?  Jesus had declared earlier (v. 7), “This infirmity “is not to [pros] death, but for [huper] the glory of God, that the Son of God should be glorified through it.”  AND IF THAT WAS SO FOR HIS FORSAKING OF HIS “FRIEND,” HOW MUCH MORE SO MUST IT BE FOR THE FATHER’S “FORSAKING” OF HIS OWN SON?  Any questions?  [5/16/10]