The notion of Christ’s “identification with” the curse (incorrectly appealing to Gal. 3:13) and with “sin” (incorrectly appealing to 2 Cor. 5:21) actually SABOTAGES the truth of the matter by WEAKENING the sense of GROSS INJUSTICE that such passages should convey. Did Christ merely “identify with” the curse or was he cursed wrongfully by his crucifiers? Did he merely “identify with” sin somehow, or was his very crucifixion a damnable sin (and hence a “sin-offering,” which ritually prophesied such a vicious crime)? [5/01/10]